Punjab

PGET Punjab (UHS): Paper II format, table of specifications and merit

The single entry test for MS, MD, MDS and FCPS induction in Punjab, set by the University of Health Sciences (UHS), Lahore. PGET replaced JCAT.

Last checked against the official documents: 14 October 2026.

The exam at a glance

Papers
Paper I (basic sciences) and Paper II (your specialty). Each is 100 single-best MCQs, 100 marks, 2 hours.
Next test
Sunday 25 October 2026 (January 2027 intake): Paper I 10:00–12:00, Paper II 13:00–15:00. Fee Rs 10,000. UHS has not published negative-marking or score-validity rules.
Paper II · Medicine and Allied
Cardiovascular 14, gastroenterology 12, pulmonology 10, endocrinology 10, infectious diseases 10, CNS 10, haematology 9, nephrology 8, rheumatology 6, hepatology 6, dermatology 5. Level: medicine as applied in house job.
Paper II · Surgery and Allied
Group I: general surgery 55, genito-urinary 15, skin/plastic and reconstructive 15, paediatric surgery 15. Group II: general surgery 55, orthopaedics 15, cardiothoracic 15, neurosurgery 15. Both groups include one MCQ each on shock, haemorrhage and transfusion, fluids and electrolytes, and ethics.
Paper II · Paediatrics
By the 16 systems of the UHS table of specifications: gastrointestinal and liver 12, cardiovascular 10, neonatology 10, infectious diseases 10, fundamentals and nutrition 8, neurology 8, respiratory 8, haematology 8, endocrine 6, renal 5, neuromuscular 4, child abuse and psychiatry 3, and 2 each for metabolic, rheumatology, genetics and miscellaneous.
Dentistry
A BDS Paper I and a Paper II for each dental specialty. UHS has not yet published the dental tables of specifications.
Merit
You must reach the 75th percentile to pass. PGET marks carry 75% of merit.

Check your result

UHS PGET portal — sign in with your PGET account.

Open the official results page →

We link to the official page only; MedSurgOnline does not hold results.

How to prepare

Try 5 free practice MCQs

Practice MCQ 1 · Endocrinology

A 48-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes is brought to the emergency department unresponsive. Her family reports that she had poor oral intake with nausea and vomiting for the past two days. She is drowsy and unable to respond to questions. What is the most appropriate initial step in management? (PGMI Recall)

  1. ACheck bedside blood glucose level
  2. BStart intravenous insulin
  3. CBegin intravenous normal saline
  4. DGive sodium bicarbonate
  5. EAdminister oxygen therapy
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A — Check bedside blood glucose level

No treatment can be chosen for a drowsy diabetic until glucose is known, since the two possibilities demand opposite interventions. Poor intake with vomiting on insulin or a sulfonylurea makes hypoglycaemia as likely as a hyperglycaemic crisis, and giving insulin or saline to a hypoglycaemic patient wastes the minutes that matter and risks neuroglycopenic injury. A capillary glucose takes seconds and needs no laboratory, which is why glucose follows airway, breathing and circulation. IV insulin is dangerous until hyperglycaemia and potassium are confirmed. Normal saline is correct in ketoacidosis or a hyperosmolar state, but only once diagnosed. Bicarbonate is not indicated except at pH below 6.9. Oxygen is given if hypoxaemic, but addresses neither cause of coma.

Practice MCQ 2 · Gastroenterology

A 45-year-old man with a 20-year history of heavy smoking presents with progressive shortness of breath and chronic cough. He was recently diagnosed with COPD despite being relatively young for severe disease. He also has a history of liver cirrhosis with no history of significant alcohol use. Laboratory evaluation reveals a markedly reduced serum alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT) level of 35 mg/dL (reference about 100–200 mg/dL). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (PGMI Recall)

  1. AAlcoholic liver disease
  2. BNonalcoholic fatty liver disease
  3. CAlpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
  4. DChronic hepatitis C infection
  5. EWilson disease
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C — Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

The differential is cirrhosis with no alcohol history, and emphysema appearing unusually early. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency unifies both: the abnormal Z protein polymerises within hepatocytes, producing periodic acid-Schiff-positive diastase-resistant globules and cirrhosis, while the low circulating antiprotease leaves neutrophil elastase unopposed in the lung, giving basal panacinar emphysema that smoking accelerates dramatically. One disease accounts for both organs, unlike any other option. Alcoholic liver disease is excluded by the history. Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease explains the cirrhosis but nothing in the lung. Chronic hepatitis C is likewise confined to the liver. Wilson disease presents younger with Kayser-Fleischer rings, low caeruloplasmin and neuropsychiatric features. Confirmation requires phenotyping or genotyping for the PiZZ allele.

Practice MCQ 3 · Cardiology

A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe central chest pain radiating to his left arm for the past 45 minutes. The pain began at rest and is associated with profuse sweating, nausea, and shortness of breath. He has a history of hypertension and smoking. On examination, he appears anxious and diaphoretic. His vital signs show blood pressure 95/60 mm Hg, pulse 58/min, and respiratory rate 22/min. An ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate next step in management? (PGMI Recall)

  1. AAdminister intravenous beta-blockers
  2. BObtain cardiac enzyme levels
  3. CStart high-dose statin therapy
  4. DPerform urgent percutaneous coronary intervention
  5. EBegin heparin infusion alone
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D — Perform urgent percutaneous coronary intervention

This is an inferior STEMI, with elevation in II, III and aVF indicating right coronary occlusion in most patients. The only treatment that alters outcome is reopening the artery: primary PCI within 120 minutes of first contact beats fibrinolysis, and where a catheter lab is unreachable, as in much of Pakistan, thrombolysis is given immediately and the patient transferred. The bradycardia and borderline pressure fit right coronary occlusion with vagal activation or right ventricular involvement, so nitrates are avoided. IV beta-blockade would be harmful with a pulse of 58 and systolic 95. Cardiac enzymes take hours and must never delay reperfusion when the ECG is diagnostic. A statin is secondary prevention. Heparin alone does not dissolve established thrombus.

Practice MCQ 4 · Endocrinology

A 58-year-old man with a 15-year history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a non-healing ulcer on the sole of his right foot for the past 3 weeks. He reports minimal pain but notes occasional foul-smelling discharge. On examination, there is a deep ulcer over a pressure point with surrounding callus. The foot is warm, and there is reduced sensation to vibration and pinprick. Peripheral pulses are present. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (PGMI Recall)

  1. APeripheral arterial disease
  2. BVenous ulcer
  3. CDiabetic foot
  4. DPressure ulcer
  5. ECellulitis
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C — Diabetic foot

This is a neuropathic diabetic foot ulcer, read from its site, sensation and pulses. Long-standing hyperglycaemia damages nerve fibres, so vibration and pinprick are lost; the foot no longer registers pressure, callus builds over pressure points, and unfelt trauma breaks the skin, giving a punched-out, painless ulcer. Warm skin with palpable pulses confirms intact perfusion and a neuropathic, not ischaemic, mechanism. Peripheral arterial disease gives a painful ulcer on the toes with a cold, pulseless foot. A venous ulcer sits above the medial malleolus, shallow with sloping edges and haemosiderin staining. A pressure ulcer arises over a bony prominence in an immobile patient. Cellulitis is spreading erythema rather than an ulcer, though it may complicate this one.

Practice MCQ 5 · Paediatrics

A 15-day-old male infant is brought to the emergency department due to poor feeding and fever for the past 12 hours. The mother reports that the baby has been increasingly irritable and difficult to arouse. On examination, temperature is 38.5 °C. The infant appears lethargic with a weak cry. His hands and feet are cold with delayed capillary refill. The anterior fontanelle is bulging. Lumbar puncture shows protein 200 mg/dL, glucose 32 mg/dL, and neutrophils 1500 cells/microlitre. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

  1. AEscherichia coli
  2. BListeria monocytogenes
  3. CGroup B Streptococcus
  4. DNeisseria meningitidis
  5. EStreptococcus pneumoniae
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C — Group B Streptococcus

This is bacterial meningitis in a fifteen-day-old, shown by the bulging fontanelle, poor feeding and lethargy with CSF showing high protein, low glucose and neutrophil pleocytosis. In the first month of life the organisms come from the maternal genital tract, and group B Streptococcus is commonest; late-onset disease presents in the second to fourth week exactly like this, with meningitis and shock. Escherichia coli is the second commonest neonatal pathogen, particularly in preterm infants and without intrapartum prophylaxis, but ranks below group B Streptococcus. Listeria is uncommon yet important enough that ampicillin stays in the empirical regimen. Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae matter only after about three months, once maternal antibody has waned. Empirical treatment is ampicillin with a third-generation cephalosporin or gentamicin.

Prepare for PGET Punjab on MedSurgOnline

Package B (PGR Portal): PGET Medicine, Surgery (Group I and Group II), Paediatrics and Dentistry, arranged by the UHS table of specifications, with explained MCQs including recent recalls, the Exam Companion notes and a timed mock in the Paper II format.

Start preparingTry the free demo

Official documents